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New ISC CISSP-ISSMP Dumps & Questions Updated on 2026
How to book the CISSP-ISSMP Exam
These are following steps for registering the ISC CISSP-ISSMP exam. Step 1: Visit to Pearson VUE Exam Registration Step 2: Signup/Login to Pearson VUE account Step 3: Search for ISC CISSP-ISSMP Exam Certifications Exam Step 4: Select Date, time and confirm with payment method
Exam Domains
You need to be proficient in the following domains to face the CISSP-ISSMP certification exam successfully:
- Incident Management & Threat Intelligence: This topic outlines how you can develop and maintain programs for threat intelligence by conducting threat modeling, identifying attacks, and conducting baseline analysis. You will also learn how to manage incident handling procedures as well as various investigation programs.
- Contingency Management: This area covers how to devise contingency plans, internal and external incident communication plans, security management succession plans, analyzing obstacles with Disaster Recovery (DR), developing recovery processes alongside strategies, assessing resilience, and leading recovery processes.
- Risk Management: Here, you will learn to produce and control a program for risk management, understand risk tolerance and risk treatment options, assess risk management requirements of an organization, carry out Risk Assessments such as a cost-benefit analysis, Business Impact Analysis (BIA), and manage third-party risk.
If you require supplementary references in any of the above domains, please visit the references page of the official (ISC)2 website. If you wish to reschedule or cancel the official exam, you can do so through Pearson VUE by phone at least a day before your test. For additional detailed information on this exam, visit the official (ISC)² site.
For more info visit:
ISC CISSP-ISSMP Exam Reference
NEW QUESTION # 176
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of "tone at the top" in security governance?
- A. The order in which policies are listed in a document
- B. The volume level of alarm systems
- C. The technical configuration of top-level domain servers
- D. The ethical and risk-conscious culture set by senior leadership, which influences organization-wide behavior
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Tone at the top" refers to how executive leadership's visible commitment to ethics and security shapes organizational culture and compliance behavior throughout the company.
NEW QUESTION # 177
Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members and the community at large?
- A. CERT
- B. FedCIRC
- C. FIRST
- D. CSIRT
Answer: C
Explanation:
FIRST (Forum of Incident Response and Security Team) aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members and the community at large.
Answer option D is incorrect. FedCIRC establishes a collaborative partnership of computer incident response, security and law enforcement professionals who work together to handle computer security incidents and to provide both proactive and reactive security services for the
U.S. Federal government.
Answer option B is incorrect. CERT aims to alert the Internet community to vulnerabilities and attacks and to conduct research and training in the areas of computer security, including incident response.
Answer option A is incorrect. The entire potential, suspected, or known information security incidents are reported to a Computer Security and Incident Response Team (CSIRT).
Reference: CISM Review Manual 2010, Contents: "Information Security Program Management"
NEW QUESTION # 178
Which of the following attacks can be mitigated by providing proper training to the employees in an organization?
- A. Denial-of-Service
- B. Smurf
- C. Social engineering
- D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: C
Explanation:
Proper user training is an effective way of mitigating social engineering attacks. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user's computer or network. This method involves mental ability of the people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name or password, computer name, IP address, employee ID, or other information that can be misused. Answer option D is incorrect. Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host. The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.
Answer option C is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers make DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network.
Answer option B is incorrect. In a smurf attack, the attacker sends a large number of ICMP echo requests at IP broadcast addresses using a fake source address. These requests appear to be coming from the victim's network address. Therefore, every computer within the broadcast domain starts sending responses to the victim. As a result, the victim's computer is flooded with responses.
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following steps is the initial step in developing an information security strategy?
- A. Perform a business impact analysis.
- B. Perform a technical vulnerabilities assessment.
- C. Analyze the current business strategy.
- D. Assess the current levels of security awareness.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 180
Which of the following BEST describes why "explainability" of AI-driven security decisions (e.g., automated blocking) matters from a management/governance perspective?
- A. Explainability is irrelevant if the AI model has high statistical accuracy
- B. Stakeholders (including auditors, affected users, and regulators) may need to understand why an automated decision was made, supporting accountability and trust
- C. AI decisions should never be reviewed or challenged by humans
- D. Explainability only matters for marketing purposes
Answer: B
Explanation:
When automated systems make consequential decisions (e.g., blocking a user's access), governance requires the ability to explain and justify those decisions for accountability, dispute resolution, regulatory compliance, and building organizational trust in the system.
NEW QUESTION # 181
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of "graceful degradation" as a resilience design principle?
- A. Graceful degradation applies only to network hardware
- B. Systems should fail completely and immediately upon any disruption
- C. Graceful degradation eliminates the need for a DRP
- D. Systems are designed to continue operating at reduced functionality/capacity rather than failing entirely when a component becomes unavailable
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rather than an all-or-nothing failure mode, resilient systems are designed to shed non-critical functionality while preserving core operations when under stress or partial failure - improving overall availability during disruption.
NEW QUESTION # 182
Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. Who decides the category of a change?
- A. The Service Desk
- B. The Change Manager
- C. The Change Advisory Board
- D. The Process Manager
- E. The Problem Manager
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 183
John is a black hat hacker. FBI arrested him while performing some email scams. Under which of the following US laws will john be charged?
- A. 18 U.S.C. 1030
- B. 18 U.S.C. 1362
- C. 18 U.S.C. 2701
- D. 18 U.S.C. 2510
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of "cyber threat hunting" as opposed to traditional monitoring/alerting?
- A. Threat hunting replaces the need for SIEM tools
- B. Threat hunting is a proactive, hypothesis-driven search for threats that may have evaded existing detection controls
- C. Threat hunting is reactive, triggered only by existing alerts
- D. Threat hunting is performed exclusively by external auditors
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unlike traditional alert-driven monitoring, threat hunting proactively searches for indicators of compromise or adversary behavior based on hypotheses, assuming existing controls may have missed something.
NEW QUESTION # 185
You are a project manager of a large construction project. Within the project you are working with several vendors to complete different phases of the construction. Your client has asked that you arrange for some of the materials a vendor is to install next week in the project to be changed.
According to the change management plan what subsystem will need to manage this change request?
- A. Schedule
- B. Resources
- C. Contract
- D. Cost
Answer: C
Explanation:
Because the vendor is completing the work the change request will need to move through the contract change control system. There are four change control systems in project management:
scope, cost, schedule, and contract. If the scope change control were a choice, it would be a valid answer too.
NEW QUESTION # 186
You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network.
John complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to conduct to resolve the problem?
- A. Operational audit
- B. Non-operational audit
- C. Dependent audit
- D. Independent audit
Answer: D
Explanation:
An independent audit is an audit that is usually conducted by external or outside resources. It is the process of reviewing detailed audit logs for the following purposes:
To examine the system activities and access logs
To assess the adequacy of system methods
To assess the adequacy of system controls
To examine compliance with established enterprise network system policies To examine compliance with established enterprise network system procedures To examine effectiveness of enabling, support, and core processes Answer option B is incorrect. It is not a valid type of security audit.
Answer option A is incorrect. It is done to examine the operational and ongoing activities within a network.
Answer option C is incorrect. It is not a valid type of security audit.
Reference: Guide to Tactical Perimeter Defense, Contents: "Network Auditing Concepts"
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following BEST describes why "vendor concentration risk" is a concern in contingency planning?
- A. Concentration risk is irrelevant if the vendor has a strong SLA
- B. Vendor concentration risk applies only to cloud providers
- C. Over-reliance on a single vendor/provider for a critical function creates a single point of failure if that vendor experiences an outage or failure
- D. Using multiple vendors always increases risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Even with a strong SLA, if a critical function depends entirely on one vendor, that vendor's outage, bankruptcy, or breach can directly disrupt the organization - a key reason for evaluating diversification or contingency alternatives for critical dependencies.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between "compliance" and "security"?
- A. Compliance is irrelevant to a mature security program
- B. Compliance establishes a regulatory/legal baseline, but true security requires managing risk beyond minimum compliance requirements
- C. Compliance and security are always identical - being compliant guarantees being secure
- D. Security is a subset of compliance with no independent value
Answer: B
Explanation:
A well-known ISSMP theme: "compliant does not mean secure." Regulatory compliance sets a necessary floor, but organizations must manage risk holistically, which often requires controls beyond minimum legal/regulatory requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 189
A CISO is asked to reduce the security budget by 20% for the upcoming fiscal year. What is the MOST appropriate FIRST step?
- A. Conduct a risk-based prioritization of current initiatives to identify which can be reduced/deferred with acceptable risk impact
- B. Refuse the budget cut outright
- C. Cut all security initiatives proportionally without analysis
- D. Resign from the position
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rather than an arbitrary or blanket cut, a risk-based approach evaluates which initiatives can be scaled back with the least risk impact, allowing an informed conversation with leadership about tradeoffs.
NEW QUESTION # 190
John works as a security manager for Soft Tech Inc. He is working with his team on the disaster recovery management plan. One of his team members has a doubt related to the most cost effective DRP testing plan. According to you, which of the following disaster recovery testing plans is the most cost-effective and efficient way to identify areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more demanding training exercises?
- A. Walk-through drill
- B. Evacuation drill
- C. Structured walk-through test
- D. Full-scale exercise
Answer: C
Explanation:
The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk- through test, the team members walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises.
Answer option A is incorrect. In full-scale exercise, the critical systems run at an alternate site.
Answer option B is incorrect. The emergency management group and response teams actually perform their emergency response functions by walking through the test, without actually initiating recovery procedures. But it is not much cost effective. Answer option C is incorrect. It is a test performed when personnel walks through the evacuation route to a designated area where procedures for accounting for the personnel are tested.
Reference: CISM Review Manual 2010, Chapter. "Incident Management and Response"
NEW QUESTION # 191
Which of the following BEST describes "least privilege" as an access control principle?
- A. Least privilege eliminates the need for access reviews
- B. Least privilege applies only to system administrators
- C. Users should be granted the maximum access to increase productivity
- D. Users should be granted only the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Least privilege minimizes the attack surface and potential damage from compromised or misused accounts by restricting access rights to only what's required for a role.
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following is a process that identifies critical information to determine if friendly actions can be observed by adversary intelligence systems?
- A. OPSEC
- B. NIDS
- C. HIDS
- D. IDS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 193
You are documenting your organization's change control procedures for project management. What portion of the change control process oversees features and functions of the product scope?
- A. Product scope management is outside the concerns of the project.
- B. Configuration management
- C. Project integration management
- D. Scope changecontrol system
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Unclassified
- B. Public
- C. Private
- D. Confidential
- E. Sensitive
- F. Secret
Answer: B,C,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose three.
- A. Administrative
- B. Physical
- C. Technical
- D. Automatic
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 196
You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one?
- A. Identification information for each stakeholder
- B. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project
- C. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence
- D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 197
Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities except for which one?
- A. Configuration Item Costing
- B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
- C. Configuration Identification
- D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 198
Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is performing a security awareness program. To be successful in performing the awareness program, he should take into account the needs and current levels of training and understanding of the employees and audience. There are five key ways, which Mark should keep in mind while performing this activity. Current level of computer usage What the audience really wants to learn How receptive the audience is to the security program How to gain acceptance Who might be a possible ally Which of the following activities is performed in this security awareness process?
- A. Audience participation
- B. Separation of duties
- C. Audience segmentation
- D. Stunned owl syndrome
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 199
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